Friday, August 29, 2014

targets developing leadership for the organization and frequently highly individualized in nature.

Question 1 of 20
5.0 Points
__________ targets developing leadership for the organization and frequently highly individualized in nature.


A. Executive development


B. Leader development


C. Leadership development


D. Supervisory and managerial development

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Question 2 of 20
5.0 Points
__________ involves a a relatively permanent increase or change in behavior, knowledge, or skill that comes about because of some experience.


A. Education


B. Development


C. Learning


D. Training

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Question 3 of 20
5.0 Points
__________ programs focus on self-awareness and understanding of strengths and weakness as well as getting in touch with personal values.


A. Basic knowledge


B. Personal growth


C. Skill development


D. Creativity

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Question 4 of 20
5.0 Points
A willingness to learn requires both:


A. motivation and readiness


B. motivation and education


C. readiness and education


D. readiness and development

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Question 5 of 20
5.0 Points
Whechien was recently hired as a floor manager of a local home garden center. During his first month as manager, he participated in 80 hours of orientation training to become familiar with the policies and procedures of the organization. Which element of the core of learning best represents this example?


A. willingness to learn


B. ability to learn


C. effective informal support


D. sufficient development experiences

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Question 6 of 20
5.0 Points
If the culture values __________, then leader development should focus opportunities on all employees.


A. egalitarianiasm


B. high power distance


C. action-orienttion


D. high communication context

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Question 7 of 20
5.0 Points
__________ refers to leader development programs that focus on information about content of leadership and fundamental concepts such as communication, feedback and contingent rewards.


A. Basic knowledge


B. Personal growth


C. Skill development


D. Creativity

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Question 8 of 20
5.0 Points
__________ focuses on the application of knowledge which included topics such as planning, goal setting, and monitoring.


A. Basic knowledge


B. Personal growth


C. Skill development


D. Creativity

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Question 9 of 20
5.0 Points
Because the United States has __________, it is appropriate to create leader development programs with a high degree of exposure to new and challenging situations.


A. tolerance for ambiguity


B. action-orientation


C. high communication context


D. low power distance

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Question 10 of 20
5.0 Points
Cultures that value __________, can focus the content of leader development and training on practical matters and hands-on training.


A. action-orientation


B. high communication context


C. tolerance for ambiguity


D. high power distance

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Question 11 of 20
5.0 Points
Coaching programs are most often used in:


A. executive development programs.


B. self-development programs.


C. supervisor training programs.


D. leader development programs.

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Question 12 of 20
5.0 Points
Which personality trait is most likely related to one’s ability to seek and accept feedback?


A. external locus of control


B. openness to experience


C. emotional stablility


D. high macs

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Question 13 of 20
5.0 Points
Self-awareness is a limited method for leader development because it only provides leaders with:


A. rich developmental experience.


B. individual awareness.


C. opportunity for practice.


D. support from the organization.

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Question 14 of 20
5.0 Points
When using the __________ criteria for leader training, participants must be alerted to the need for change and specific areas they should address so that they are ready to change.


A. assessment


B. individual awareness


C. opportunity for practice


D. challenging experience

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Question 15 of 20
5.0 Points
Which criteria for effective development relate to the culture of the organization?


A. fit and integration


B. assessment


C. opportunity for practice


D. feedback

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Question 16 of 20
5.0 Points
Leader development programs that provide parallel learning environments and address different learning styles offer:


A. appropriate assessment and follow-up.


B. clearly stated objectives.


C. integrated assessment.


D. a combination of tools and methods.

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Question 17 of 20
5.0 Points
__________ refers to the process of personal reflection and getting feedback from others.


A. Values clarification


B. Assessment


C. Double-loop learning


D. Learning

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Question 18 of 20
5.0 Points
The only potential weakness for real experience in leader development criteria is __________, which can be easily built in through formal programs or use of existing organizational performance tools.


A. individual awareness


B. feedback on new learning


C. opportunity for practice


D. assessment

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Question 19 of 20
5.0 Points
The primary difference in the methods often used for coaching and mentoring programs is that mentoring usually does not include:


A. assessment.


B. opportunity for practice.


C. support from the organization.


D. individual awareness.

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Question 20 of 20
5.0 Points
__________ is an ongoing, long-term change or evolution that occurs because of various learning experiences.


A. Development


B. Training


C. Education


D. Curriculum

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Which one of the following is not a benefit of budgeting?

Question 1. 1. (TCO 1) Which one of the following is not a benefit of budgeting? (Points : 5)
It facilitates the coordination of activities.
It provides definite objectives for evaluating performance.
It provides assurance that the company will achieve its objectives.
It provides early warning signs of potential threats.


Question 2. 2. (TCO 2) Which of the following is not a qualitative forecasting method? (Points : 5)
Executive opinions
Sales force polling
Delphi method
Classical decomposition


Question 3. 3. (TCO 3) Which of the following is not used to evaluate the accuracy of regression results? (Points : 5)
Mean absolute deviation
Coefficient of determination
Prediction confidence interval
T-statistic


Question 4. 4. (TCO 4) Which of the following statements regarding the risk associated with R & D activities is incorrect? (Points : 5)
The amount of time between the R & D activity and the cash flows from the project does not affect risk.
Greater risk is associated with creating new products than with improving existing products.
Risk increases as the time between the R & D activity and the cash flows from the project increases.
Assessing risk is a vital part of research and development.


Question 5. 5. (TCO 5) Which of the following is true when ranking proposals using zero-base budgeting? (Points : 5)  (Not Sure about this)
Nonfunded packages should not be ranked.
Adjustments are not allowed once the ranking is complete.
Due to changing circumstances, a low-priority item may later become a high-priority item.
Decision packages are ranked in order of increasing benefit.



Question 6. 6. (TCO 6) When using the payback period technique, the payback period is expressed in terms of _____.
(Points : 5)
a percentage
dollars
years
months


Question 7. 7. (TCO 6) The accounting rate of return method is based on _____.
(Points : 5)
income data
the time value of money data
market values
cash flow data


Question 8. 8. (TCO 6) A company projects annual cash inflows of $85,000 each year for the next 5 years if it invests $300,000 in new equipment. The equipment has a 5-year life and an estimated salvage value of $75,000. What is the accounting rate of return on this investment? (Points : 5)
28.3%
13.3%
15%
43.3%


Question 9. 9. (TCO 6) Bradshaw Inc. is contemplating a capital investment of $85,000. The cash inflows over the project’s 4 years are as follows.
Year Expected Cash Inflow
1 $18,000
2 $25,000
3 $35,000
4 $20,000


The payback period is _____.
(Points : 5)
2.17 years
3.35 years
2.30 years
3.47 years



Question 10. 10. (TCO 6) Selma Inc. is comparing several alternative capital budgeting projects as shown below.
Projects A B C
Initial Investment $40,000 $60,000 $80,000
Present value of cash inflows $60,000 $55,000 $100,000


Using the profitability index, rank the projects, starting with the most attractive. (Points : 5)
A, C, B
A, B, C
C, A, B
C, B, A


Question 11. 11. (TCO 6) A company has a minimum required rate of return of 10%. It is considering investing in a project that costs $210,000 and is expected to generate cash inflows of $85,000 at the end of each year for 4 years. The approximate net present value of this project is _____.
(Points : 5)
$59,442
$1,387
$65,375
$5,161


Question 12. 12. (TCO 7) Which of the following would not appear as a fixed expense on a selling and administrative expense budget? (Points : 5)
Freight-out
Office salaries
Property taxes
Depreciation


Question 13. 13. (TCO 7) Sargent.Com plans to sell 2,000 purple lawn chairs during May, 1,900 in June, and 2,000 during July. The company keeps 15% of the next month’s sales as ending inventory. How many units should Sargent.Com produce during June? (Points : 5)
1,915
2,200
1,885
Not enough information to determine



Question 14. 14. (TCO 8) Which of the following is not a cause of profit variance? (Points : 5)
Changes in sales price
Changes in sales mix
Changes in sales volume
All of the above are causes of profit variance.


Question 15. 15. (TCO 9) A static budget _____.
(Points : 5)
should not be prepared in a company
is useful in evaluating a manager's performance by comparing actual variable costs and planned variable costs
shows planned results at the original budgeted activity level
is changed only if the actual level of activity is different from what is originally budgeted


Question 16. 16. (TCO 9) If costs are not responsive to changes in activity level, how are they best described? (Points : 5)
Mixed
Flexible
Variable
Fixed


Question 17. 17. (TCO 9) At the high level of activity in November, 7,000 machine hours were run and power costs were $12,000. In April, a month of low activity, 2,000 machine hours were run and power costs amounted to $6,000. Using the high-low method, what is the estimated fixed cost element of power costs? (Points : 5)
$12,000
$6,000
$3,600
$8,400

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Fully explain credit default swaps and discuss their relationship to financial events

Explain the following. 1. Fully explain credit default swaps and discuss their relationship to financial events in 2007 and 2008. 2. In your own words, explain asset swaps and asset swap spreads.. 3. Identify risks included by regulators in their definition of operational risks. Identify also risks that are not included. 4. Which distributions are commonly used for loss frequency and loss severity? 5. Explain how liquidity black holes occur. How can regulation lead to liquidity black holes. 6. Briefly summarize the text information on risk limits and liquidity risk. 7. Choose three of the risk management mistakes to avoid and discuss each, providing real-world examples. These answers do not have to be as long as the last assignment that you helped me with, as long as they get to the point and answer the question fully


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Human Resouce Management questions


Text:
Human Resource Management
Thirteenth Edition, 2013
ISBN-13: 9780132668217
Gary Dessler
Pearson


1. Which of the following is the person responsible for accomplishing an organization’s goals by
 planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling personnel?
a. manager
b. entrepreneur
c. marketer
d. generalist
2. Larry, a manager at a commercial real estate firm, has established a monthly sales quota for his
 sales team. Which basic function of management best describes Larry’s actions?
a. staffing
b. controlling
c. planning
d. organizing
3. ________ is the process of acquiring, training, appraising, and compensating employees, and
 attending to their labor relations, health and safety, and fairness concerns.
a. Organizational health and safety management
b. Human resource management
c. Behavioral management
d. Labor relations
4. According to experts, the primary hindrance to a firm’s productivity is its inability to ________.
a. use advanced accounting controls
b. acquire and maintain human capital
c. establish effective manufacturing facilities
d. attain adequate cash and credit
5. Which of the following is most likely a line function of the human resource manager?
a. representing the interests of employees to senior management
b. directing the activities of subordinates in the HR department
c. ensuring that line managers are implementing HR policies
d. advising line managers about how to implement EEO laws
6. All of the following are examples of human resource specialties EXCEPT ________.
a. job analyst
b. labor relations specialist
c. compensation manager
d. financial advisor
7. ________ refers to the tendency of firms to extend their sales, ownership, and/or manufacturing
 to new markets abroad.
a. Export growth
b. Expansion
c. Diversification
d. Globalization
8. Which of the following best explains the shift from manufacturing to service jobs in the U.S.?
a. firms producing their own raw materials
b. web-based training programs for blue-collar workers
c. creation of integrated supply chains.
d. global environmental concerns and legislation
9. Tara Robles earned an MBA degree and is now an HR manager for a Fortune 500 company. In
 which of the following tasks does Tara’s advanced degree benefit her the most?
a. recruiting college graduates for entry-level positions
b. distributing pension payments to retiring employees
c. using application service providers to expedite employee services
d. assisting upper management in formulating business strategies
10. The EEOC was initially established to investigate complaints about ________.
a. job discrimination
b. structural accommodations for disabled people
c. sexual harassment in schools
d. unfair business practices
11. Paul is a 49-year-old American of Anglo-Saxon descent. What legislation is most likely
 intended to protect Paul from discrimination?
a. Equal Pay Act of 1963
b. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
c. Executive Order 11375
d. Executive Order 11246
12. Which of the following is NOT a form of sexual harassment according to EEOC guidelines?
a. verbal conduct of a sexual nature that unreasonably interferes with work performance
b. mutually consensual physical conduct of a sexual nature between co-workers
c. unwelcome sexual advances that create an intimidating work environment
d. physical conduct of a sexual nature that creates an offensive work environment
13. Gus is always making sexual jokes at work. Many employees find the jokes funny, but Shelley,
 Gus’s executive assistant, is uncomfortable with the jokes. Eventually, she decides to quit her
 job rather than endure the jokes any longer. What form of sexual harassment has Shelley
 experienced?
a. hostile environment created by supervisors
b. hostile environment created by co-workers
c. quid pro quo
d. hostile environment created by nonemployees
14. Sanders Sporting Goods, an international sporting goods chain, is being sued for sexual
 harassment by a former Sanders employee. The plaintiff asserts that she was the victim of
 numerous unwanted sexual advances from a male co-worker. The woman claims that Sanders’
 management condoned a hostile work environment and that the company is liable for the
 actions of the male employee.
 All of the following are most likely relevant questions to address in this court case EXCEPT:
a. Is the male co-worker a U.S. citizen and is Sanders a U.S. entity?
b. Does Sanders have a record of employees who claim disparate treatment in the work
 place?
c. Did Sanders take reasonable care to prevent sexual harassment in the work place?
d. Does Sanders have a policy statement regarding sexual harassment?
15. Which of the following involves comparing the percentage of the minority/protected group
 and white workers in an organization with the percentage of the corresponding group in the
 labor market?
a. personnel population comparison approach
b. McDonnell-Douglas test
c. population comparisons approach
d. restricted policy comparison method
16. All of the following are steps involved in the strategic management process EXCEPT ________.
a. crafting a course of action
b. defining the business and developing a mission
c. offshoring low-skill jobs
d. evaluating the firm’s internal and external situation
17. Which of the following activities most likely indicates that a firm is implementing a vertical
 integration strategy?
a. selling unprofitable divisions
b. purchasing a competitor’s firm
c. producing raw materials
d. aggressively selling a new product
18. The 2008 announcement by Starbucks that it would be closing approximately 600 of its stores
 suggests the firm was using a ________ strategy.
a. vertical integration
b. consolidation
c. geographic expansion
d. diversification
19. Human resource strategies are the ________ used to support a firm’s strategic goals.
a. visions and objectives
b. missions and goals
c. policies and practices
d. theories and tools
20. High-performance work organizations are most likely characterized by all of the following
 EXCEPT ________.
a. extensive training
b. empowered front-line workers
c. multi-skilled work teams
d. commitment to high production rates
21. Which of the following is a written statement that describes the activities, responsibilities,
 working conditions, and supervisory responsibilities of a job?
a. job description
b. job context
c. job analysis
d. job specification
22. Which of the following refers to the human requirements needed for a job, such as education,
 skills, and personality?
a. job analysis
b. job specifications
c. job placement
d. job descriptions
23. Which of the following indicates the distribution of work within a firm and the lines of authority
 and communication?
a. organization chart
b. employee matrix
c. corporate overview
d. process chart
24. The primary drawback of performing a job analysis regards the ________.
a. costs associated with the technology needed for a job analysis
b. certification required to conduct a job analysis
c. unverifiable data a job analysis typically provides
d. amount of time a job analysis takes to complete
e. redundant information gathered during a job analysis
25. One of the problems with direct observation is ________, which is when workers alter their
 normal activities because they are being watched.
a. flexibility
b. falsification
c. diversion
d. reactivity

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